1. A TE2 requires what additional device to attach to an ISDN connection?

  2. A. NT1
    B. NT2
    C. TA
    D. Nothing

  3. What type of data is carried on ISDN B channels?

  4. A. Analog
    B. Sideband signals
    C. Signal and control
    D. Voice and data

  5. What is the most common use of ISDN?

  6. A. Dedicated local access
    B. Remote access through cable connections
    C. Remote access through dial-up connections
    D. Dedicated redundant backup

  7. What is the bit rate for a PRI connection, also known as an E1, that has 30 8-bit B channels plus one 8-bit D channel plus one 8-bit framing channel?

  8. A. 64 kbps
    B. 2.048 Mbps
    C. 192 kbps
    D. 1.544 Mbps

  9. When configuring ISDN on a router, from whom is the SPID obtained?

  10. A. Network administrator
    B. User
    C. Service provider
    D. Internic

  11. When installing ISDN what will the encapsulation type be if no changes are made during the installation?

  12. A. VPP
    B. SLIP
    C. PPP
    D. HDLC

  13. What links are typically the lowest speed links in the enterprise?

  14. A. LAN links
    B. WAN links
    C. Remote access links
    D. Frame Relay links

  15. What is the command to select the ISDN switch type?

  16. A. router(config)#set switch type nnnnn
    B. router(config)#isdn switch-type nnnnn
    C. router(config-if)#set switch type nnnnn
    D. router(config-if)#isdn switch-type nnnnn

  17. Which ISDN connection method allows a remote user to appear as part of the network?

  18. A. LAN link
    B. Remote node
    C. Callback authentication
    D. Virtual station

  19. What do ISDN protocols that begin with Q identify?

  20. A. Concepts
    B. Signaling
    C. Terminology
    D. Data rates

  21. Which of the following commands is used to confirm BRI operations?

  22. A. #show version
    B. #show interface
    C. #show start-up
    D. #show isdn status

  23. Which ISDN channels are for voice, video, and data?

  24. A. D channels
    B. B channels
    C. Data channels
    D. C channels

  25. What is the function of the service profile identifiers or SPIDs?

  26. A. Replace the DLC number
    B. Used instead of subnetting
    C. Identify line configuration
    D. Logical address of the ISDN router

  27. Which of the following is an ISDN global configuration task?

  28. A. Select switch type
    B. Select the interface specifications
    C. Configure the interface
    D. Configure optional features

  29. What is the function of the framing bit in an ISDN physical-layer frame?

  30. A. Identifies user data
    B. Provides synchronization
    C. Adjusts the average bit value
    D. Contention resolution

  31. A small local network uses ISDN to connect to the corporate headquarters. The router continuously dials all day even when the users are not accessing the network. What should be checked to determine what is dialing the router?

  32. A. Number of users on the network
    B. Hosts tables
    C. LMI traffic
    D. Unexpected protocols

  33. What command is used to enter the interface configuration mode and to configure the BRI interface?

  34. A. >interface bri 0
    B. #interface bri 0
    C. (config)#interface bri 0
    D. (config-if)#interface bri 0

  35. Which ISDN channel is used to establish call setup?

  36. A. Channel D
    B. Channel B
    C. Channel Call setup
    D. Channel C

  37. Which types of service are provided by ISDN Layer 3 specifications?

  38. A. Data framing
    B. User and password authentication
    C. Connection oriented and connectionless sessions
    D. Establish circuit-switched connections

  39. What is used to terminate the BRI local loop at the customer premise?

  40. A. NT1
    B. NT2
    C. TE1
    D. TE2

  41. What is a characteristic of ISDN SOHO (small office or home office) connectivity?

  42. A. Always uses multiple IP address
    B. Usually provides support for many users
    C. Usually involves only dialup connections
    D. Always involves dedicated connections

  43. What ISDN device connects four-wire ISDN wiring to the two-wire local loop facility?

  44. A. TA
    B. TE1
    C. NT2
    D. NT1